Unlike the debutant affection of the OECD, we discourage using projected cash flows for HTVI calculations because this method is speculative and based on numerous impeachable assumptions.

- Valuation of Intangibles (11)
- Net Profit Indicator (9)
- Royalty Rates (8)
- Net profit (3)
- Arm's Length Range (2)
- Comparability Analysis (2)
- Economic Substance (2)
- IRS Releases FY 2015 Data Book (1)
- IRS Releases New Practice Unit (1)
- Keyword search (1)
- OECD BEPS Action (1)
- Safe Harbors, Safe Harbours (1)
- US APMA News & Statistics (1)

Posted by
**Ednaldo Silva** on Jun 26, 2017 7:38:26 PM

Unlike the debutant affection of the OECD, we discourage using projected cash flows for HTVI calculations because this method is speculative and based on numerous impeachable assumptions.

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**Topics:**Valuation of Intangibles- Share

Posted by
**Ednaldo Silva** on Apr 21, 2017 10:42:59 AM

We can utilize payroll and determine the value of intangibles. In David Ricardo (1772-1823), *Principles of Political Economy*, Cambridge University Press, 1951 [1817], the price of a commodity produced in period *t* is determined by a profit markup equation:

(1) P* _{t}* = (1 +

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**Topics:**Valuation of Intangibles- Share

Posted by
**Ednaldo Silva** on Apr 20, 2017 3:19:07 PM

We estimated the equilibrium OMAD [operating (profit) margin *after* depreciation] of certain U.S. retailers using an autoregressive (AR(1)) model built-in RoyaltyStat. RoyaltyStat uses the Gauss run-time engine, so the regression estimates are reliable.

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**Topics:**Arm's Length Range- Share

Posted by
**Ednaldo Silva** on Mar 31, 2017 5:53:43 PM

In several blogs, we postulated that an autoregressive (AR) model can produce more reliable measures of comparable company profit ratios (operating margin over revenue or profit rate over assets) than the naive profit model prescribed by the OECD transfer pricing guidelines. We prefer to work with profit margins because they are pure numbers, unlike profit rates over assets of different vintages. Here, we show the fixed-point equilibrium and the variance of an AR(1) model allowing the computation of a comparable profit ratio interval to benchmark related party transfers of goods and services.

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**Topics:**Net Profit Indicator- Share

Posted by
**Ednaldo Silva** on Mar 24, 2017 5:09:38 PM

It's useful to model company profits using a first-order autoregressive AR(1) process. However, “duality” (invertibility) between an AR(1) model and a weighted sum of random errors tempers theoretical or long-term ambitions. Duality is a metamorphosis from one dynamic process to another such that an AR(1) model can be converted into a moving average of random errors model. Moving average models lack X-factors explanation.

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**Topics:**Net Profit Indicator- Share

Posted by
**Ednaldo Silva** on Feb 21, 2017 4:20:07 PM

The claim that it is impossible to find comparable royalty rates and that from the start we should use the residual profit split method for high-value intangibles needs revisiting. This claim is made prima facie without regard for the license agreements available in curated databases such as RoyaltyStat, which as of today contains over 17,875 unique and unredacted license agreements. Also, adopting the residual profit split method, when separate tested party methods such as the TNMM could suffice, creates unwarranted costs and audit management challenges for both the taxpayer and the tax administration.

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**Topics:**Royalty Rates- Share

Posted by
**Ednaldo Silva** on Nov 4, 2016 9:33:34 AM

We can consider a first-order autoregressive (AR(1)) model to determine an arm’s length profit margin of a “tested party” subject to transfer pricing audit compliance:

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**Topics:**Valuation of Intangibles- Share

Posted by
**Ednaldo Silva** on Oct 31, 2016 10:13:44 AM

It’s useful to study the mean and variance of the first-order autoregressive model (AR(1)), which is postulated as univariate:

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**Topics:**Net profit- Share

Posted by
**Ednaldo Silva** on Oct 31, 2016 7:16:59 AM

We can determine an arm's length profit margin (expressed as operating profit divided by net sales) of a controlled taxpayer (“tested party”) by using a first-order autoregressive model, which we can show (like any stable first-order difference equation) to be equivalent to a range of comparable “routine” profit margins plus a weighted random error time series.

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**Topics:**Net profit- Share

Posted by
**Ednaldo Silva** on Oct 21, 2016 7:13:23 AM

The operating profit margin (measured after depreciation and amortization (OMAD)) of 23,151 companies listed in many countries, reflecting fiscal year-end 2015 accounting results, departs from the usually presumed normal distribution. In this sample, OMAD gets a better fit using the Gamma distribution.

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**Topics:**Net Profit Indicator- Share

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